Well, I continued plowing on through chapter two in Ellis' Language, Thought, and Logic, and it's getting funnier. In this chapter he lists the three most common initial missteps made by those who theorize about language. Here's number one: "It is the assumption that the purpose of language is communication." So, he got my attention, but what does he mean?
The most common and simple version looks at language in terms of its information content: a piece of language means whatever information it contains, and an adequate analysis formulates as completely as possible what that information is. The variant that uses such words as message and encode is essentially similar. [...] A more philosophical version of essentially the same view speaks of the truth claims made by a piece of language.
[Ellis, p.16.]
I guess the question is whether a piece of language contains anything. Is a word a container? I'd always felt that a sign doesn't contain its meaning anymore than a tool contains its function. In fact, tools and words are often used against their functions or meanings. Pieces of language are interpreted, i.e., meaning is assigned to them by some hermeneutic process on the listener's end of the phonic chain.
Nothing seems more reasonable than the assumption that the purpose of language is communication. But there is a subtle trap here: granted , a particular act of language use may result in communication between two people, but much must have happened before they could get that far.
[Ellis, p.17.]
OK, now he's lost me, but it becomes clearer later on that Ellis feels that language divies up the world of its speakers and gives them a way of making sense of it, and it just happens that we can use that to communicate. I am reminded of Searle's US GI trying to convince Italian soldiers that he is a German officer by reciting a piece of Goethe, but perhaps I'm reading too much into it. Did speech precede language? Did thought precede language? But Ellis continues:
The distinction I am making will become clearer if we go back to the vocabulary used by scholars who think of language as the transmission of information, and therefore use the vocabulary of
code, encoding, and message. This language certainly fits well with that of communication and information, the latter term substituting for message without difficultym while coding and encoding seem to describe well enough the process by which the message is conveyed from one person to another. Nevertheless, as soon as we look closely at languages and codes it becomes clear that they are very different things, so much so that the linguistic situation is completely distorted if we we speak of it in this way. Codes are only devices for disguising pieces of language so that their meaning is not immediately recognizable without removal of the disguise. [...] What is in Morse is only inforSo, imative only because it is English. The surpising fact is the very vocabulary of code and message, used so often as a model of how language works, has nothing whatever to do with language.
[...]
The essential and distinctive feature of a language is not its ability to transmit information—for this would not distinguish it from Morse code—but a logically prior attribute, the process of analysis, evaluation, and organization of experience which must have taken place before communication can occur. It is because a code lacks this stage that it is not a language. To function at all, a code has to latch on to something that has already done what languages do. Codes encode messages; language do not. Codes merely transmit information; languages make information what it is.
[Ellis, p.17f.]
So is grammar a code? More to come later.
Posted by jim at November 20, 2003 08:00 AMMan, this guy's a militant weirdnik - has he actually _read_ Jakobson's famous closing statement on linguistics and poetics, which is the classic account of a model using the terms "code" and "message".
His own account of "code" is simply wrong - if I agree a code with my beloved that she'll leave an upstairs light on if her husband's away, then that's not really subbing for any _specific_ piece of language in the way that Morse uses a secondary sign, but it's still a code.
Traffic lights use a widely-known (and international) code that isn't a simply a proxy for words, either. (I can read Estonian traffic lights! Marvel at my polyglotticiousness!)
Did Pavlov's dogs turn the ringing of a bell into langwidge and only then begin to slobber?
Umberto Eco's _Le signe_ is a good book on the sign in semiotics (and thus, and by design, an introduction to the latter).
I knew this shit was coming just from the "deconstructionism" thing - that's a code word used to signal membership of the Most Indignent Fraternity Of The Terminally Deluded Straw-Person Demolishers. (Although I submit that he would verbalise it otherwisely.)
Posted by: des on November 21, 2003 07:44 AMI'm glad you're enjoying it as much as I am, Des. He lists Jakobson's article (and Eco's Semiotics and the Study of Language) in his bibliography, and then I noticed that his book doesn't have an index. I'm not sure if he's in the Cantonese is Sumerian is Latvian camp of mad armchair linguists, but he is a professor emeritus of philosophy at UC Santa Cruz.
Posted by: jim on November 21, 2003 07:54 AM